Target PCS

UPPCS-2025 Prelims Practice Test: Set-2

This practice test having 150 questions of General Studies Paper-1.
You may attempt this free test to assessment your preparation. Try to attempt all questions and after enter name, submit the test. You may start timer just before start test for manage time.

Marks Board
120.00
 Minutes
1. Which crop is known as "Golden Fibre" of India?
  (a) Jute
  (b) Cotton
  (c) Wheat
  (d) Sugarcane
2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is the most fertile soil in India.
  • Reason (R): It is rich in potash, lime, and humus.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (c) A is true, but R is false.
  (d) A is false, but R is true.
3. Tropical Evergreen forests in India are mainly found in:
  (a) Western Ghats and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  (b) Aravalli Hills
  (c) Punjab Plains
  (d) Deccan Plateau
4. Which of the following soils is best suited for cotton cultivation?
  (a) Alluvial Soil
  (b) Black Soil (Regur)
  (c) Laterite Soil
  (d) Desert Soil
5. The monsoon in India is primarily caused by:
  (a) Westerlies
  (b) Trade Winds
  (c) Seasonal reversal of wind direction
  (d) Cyclonic Winds
6. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): India has a single citizenship for the entire country.
  • Reason (R): India follows a unitary form of government.

Codes:
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (c) A is true, but R is false.
  (d) A is false, but R is true.
7. The Lokpal and Lokayukt Act, 2013, mandates establishment of Lokayukt in every state within:
  (a) 1 year
  (b) 2 years
  (c) 3 years
  (d) No time limit specified
8. Which amendment of the Indian Constitution is known as the "Mini Constitution"?
  (a) 24th Amendment
  (b) 42nd Amendment
  (c) 44th Amendment
  (d) 52nd Amendment
9. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, provides for the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions as per which part of the Constitution?
  (a) Part IX
  (b) Part X
  (c) Part IV
  (d) Part XII
10. Which of the following features makes India a "quasi-federal" state rather than a "true federation"?
  (a) Division of powers between Centre and States
  (b) Single Constitution for both Centre and States
  (c) Independent Judiciary
  (d) Bicameral Legislature
11. Match the following books with their respective authors:
  Book Author
  A. Heart Lamp 1. Arati Kumar-Rao
  B. Marginlands: A Journey into India's Vanishing Landscapes 2. Banu Mushtaq
  C. The Indian Constitution: A Conversation with Power 3. Gautam Bhatia
  D. Mad About Cuba: A Malayali Revisits the Revolution 4. Ullekh N.P.
  Code-
  (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
  (b) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
  (c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
  (d) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
12. Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
  1. August Offer by Lord Linlithgow
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Arrival of Cripps Mission in India
  4. Cabinet Mission Plan

Options:
  (a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
  (b) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
  (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
  (d) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
13. The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by:
  (a) IMF
  (b) UNDP and Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative
  (c) World Bank
  (d) NITI Aayog
14. Financial Inclusion primarily focuses on:
  (a) Increasing exports
  (b) Providing banking services to all sections of society
  (c) Reducing population growth
  (d) Promoting higher education
15. The Tendulkar Committee (2009) was related to:
  (a) Education reforms
  (b) Poverty estimation
  (c) Employment generation
  (d) Health policy
16. Match the following leaders with their associated movements:
  Leaders Movements
  A. Mahatma Gandhi 1. Swadeshi Movement
  B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. Civil Disobedience Movement
  C. Bipin Chandra Pal 3. Quit India Movement
  D. Subhas Chandra Bose 4. Indian National Army Movement
  Code-
  (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  (b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  (c) A-2, B-1, C-1, D-4
  (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
17. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the American Constitution.
  2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from the Irish Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  (a) Only 1
  (b) Only 2
  (c) Both 1 and 2
  (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Simon Commission was sent to India in 1928 to review the working of the Government of India Act, 1919.
  2. The Commission had no Indian members.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  (a) Only 1
  (b) Only 2
  (c) Both 1 and 2
  (d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act (1919) was passed?
  (a) Lord Hardinge
  (b) Lord Chelmsford
  (c) Lord Reading
  (d) Lord Irwin
20. The Cabinet Mission Plan was sent to India in:
  (a) 1942
  (b) 1945
  (c) 1946
  (d) 1947
21. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on:
  (a) 21st March
  (b) 5th June
  (c) 16th September
  (d) 22nd April
22. According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023–24, what is India’s overall literacy rate (for individuals aged 7 and above)?
  (a) 77.7%
  (b) 80.9%
  (c) 85.0%
  (d) 74.0%
23. Which Indian state has become the first fully literate state, achieving a literacy rate of about 98.2% under the ULLAS scheme?
  (a) Kerala
  (b) Tripura
  (c) Mizoram
  (d) Lakshadweep
24. Dr. Anwar Siddiqui was recently honored with which award for his contributions to Ayurvedic medicine?
  (a) Padma Shri
  (b) Influential Ayurvedacharya Award
  (c) NAAS Fellowship Award
  (d) Bhartiya Ayurveda Ratan Award
25. Which Indian author became the first to win the International Booker Prize for a short story collection in 2025?
  (a) Arundhati Roy
  (b) Jhumpa Lahiri
  (c) Banu Mushtaq
  (d) Anita Desai
26. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was passed during the tenure of which Viceroy of India?
  (a) Lord Ripon
  (b) Lord Lytton
  (c) Lord Curzon
  (d) Lord Canning
27. The inscription that mentions Prayag Prashasti and describes the conquests of Samudragupta is found in:
  (a) Hathigumpha inscription
  (b) Allahabad Pillar inscription
  (c) Junagarh inscription
  (d) Aihole inscription
28. Which among the following Buddhist councils was held under the patronage of Kanishka and is associated with the split of Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana sects?
  (a) First Buddhist Council
  (b) Second Buddhist Council
  (c) Third Buddhist Council
  (d) Fourth Buddhist Council
29. Which Sultan of Delhi introduced the Token Currency made of copper and brass?
  (a) Alauddin Khilji
  (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
  (c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
30. The Bhakti Movement in the medieval period was primarily aimed at:
  (a) Promoting ritualistic worship
  (b) Opposing caste system and religious orthodoxy
  (c) Establishing Mughal supremacy
  (d) Promoting Jainism
31. The Chevening–Bharat Ratna Atal Bihari Vajpayee Scholarship Scheme launched by the UP government will annually send how many meritorious students to UK universities on full scholarship?
  (a) 3 students
  (b) 5 students
  (c) 10 students
  (d) 15 students
32. Under the 'Made in UP' initiative in public transportation, what did CM Yogi Adityanath direct the UP State Road Transport Corporation (UPSRTC) to prioritize?
  (a) Import high-capacity buses from international manufacturers
  (b) Use electric buses manufactured within UP
  (c) Retrofit old buses with locally-made parts
  (d) Increase diesel bus routes in rural areas
33. Which recent UP government policy offers subsidies of up to 35% on land cost for standalone footwear and leather units, and up to 80% for mega anchor units or clusters, aiming to drive industrial growth in Bundelkhand and Purvanchal?
  (a) MSME Industrial Plots Policy 2025
  (b) Footwear, Leather & Non-Leather Sector Development Policy 2025
  (c) MUYVA Scheme
  (d) Industrial Investment & Employment Promotion (IIEP) Scheme
34. Which newly announced central scheme focuses on boosting agricultural productivity in 100 identified low-output districts by promoting crop diversification, improving irrigation and storage, and enhancing credit access for around 1.7 crore farmers?
  (a) Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana
  (b) Rural Prosperity and Resilience Programme
  (c) Aatmanirbharta in Pulses
  (d) PM Fasal Bima Yojana
35. Under the Union Budget 2025–26, which scheme aims to provide integrated nutritional support—including fortified supplementary nutrition and early childhood care—for children (0–6 years), adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating women, with enhanced funding and digital monitoring?
  (a) Prime Minister Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
  (b) Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0
  (c) Jal Jeevan Mission
  (d) Stand-Up India Scheme
36. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was implemented from:
  (a) 1st January 2016
  (b) 1st July 2017
  (c) 1st April 2018
  (d) 1st March 2015
37. In India, the power to levy Income Tax lies with:
  (a) State Governments
  (b) Both Centre and States
  (c) Union Government only
  (d) Local Bodies
38. The Krishna River originates in:
  (a) Western Ghats, Maharashtra
  (b) Eastern Ghats, Andhra Pradesh
  (c) Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu
  (d) Satpura Hills, Madhya Pradesh
39. The Indus Waters Treaty (Sindhu Jal Samjota) between India and Pakistan was signed in:
  (a) 1947
  (b) 1951
  (c) 1960
  (d) 1972
40. India and Japan concluded the 6th edition of their joint military exercise Dharma Guardian in March 2025. What was a major focus of this exercise?
  (a) Only naval operations
  (b) Counter-terrorism in urban terrain and UN peacekeeping drills
  (c) Joint space operations
  (d) Submarine warfare
41. India and the U.S. recently conducted the fourth edition of a tri-service exercise named Tiger Triumph. Which of the following was a key feature of this exercise?
  (a) Only aerial combat training
  (b) Amphibious landing exercises and joint command-and-control drills
  (c) Cyber warfare simulations only
  (d) Nuclear deterrence training
42. The DRDO recently conducted the maiden flight test of a new air-defence system off the coast of Odisha. What is the purpose of this system?
  (a) Detect, track, and neutralize aerial threats
  (b) Launch long-range ballistic missiles
  (c) Provide logistical support to naval forces
  (d) Coordinate joint army–navy operations
43. Which organ in the human body is responsible for purifying blood?
  (a) Heart
  (b) Kidney
  (c) Lungs
  (d) Liver
44. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
  (a) 3 × 10⁵ m/s
  (b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
  (c) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
  (d) 3 × 10³ m/s
45. The study of fossils is called:
  (a) Botany
  (b) Zoology
  (c) Palaeontology
  (d) Archaeology
46. What is the Celsius equivalent of 212°F?
  (a) 100°C
  (b) 0°C
  (c) 50°C
  (d) 150°C
47. Which of the following is a volatile memory in a computer?
  (a) ROM
  (b) RAM
  (c) Hard Disk
  (d) Pen Drive
48. Which of the following is a secondary storage device?
  (a) RAM
  (b) Cache Memory
  (c) Hard Disk
  (d) Registers
49. Match List-I (Articles) with List-II (Subject)
  List-I (Articles) List-II (Subject)
  1. Article 14 A. Right to Equality
  2. Article 19 B. Freedom of Speech and Expression
  3. Article 21 C. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
  4. Article 32 D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
  Code-
  (a) 1 → A, 2 → B, 3 → C, 4 → D
  (b) 1 → B, 2 → A, 3 → C, 4 → D
  (c) 1 → C, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
  (d) 1 → D, 2 → B, 3 → C, 4 → A
50. Match List-I (Financial Matters) with List-II (Authority)
  List-1 (Financial Matters) List-2 (Authority)
  1. Introduction of Money Bill in State A. State Legislature
  2. Introduction of Money Bill at Union level B. Lok Sabha (Parliament)
  3. Annual Budget for a State C. State Legislature
  4. Annual Union Budget D. Parliament
  Code-
  (a) 1 → A, 2 → B, 3 → C, 4 → D
  (b) 1 → B, 2 → A, 3 → C, 4 → D
  (c) 1 → C, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
  (d) 1 → D, 2 → B, 3 → C, 4 → A
51. As per the 2011 Census of India, what was the rural–urban population ratio in India?
  (a) 70:30
  (b) 69:31
  (c) 72:28
  (d) 68:32
52. As per the 2011 Census, what was the literacy rate of Uttar Pradesh?
  (a) 69.72%
  (b) 67.68%
  (c) 65.38%
  (d) 70.92%
53. Rubber plantations in India are mainly found in:
  (a) Kerala and Karnataka
  (b) Punjab and Haryana
  (c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
  (d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
54. Match List-I (Directive Principle) with List-II (Article No.)
  List-I (Directive Principles) List-II (Articles)
  A. Promotion of International Peace & Security 1. Article 43
  B. Organization of Village Panchayats 2. Article 40
  C. Equal Pay for Equal Work 3. Article 51
  D. Promotion of Cottage Industries 4. Article 39(d)
  Code-
  (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  (d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
55. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
  (a) Part II
  (b) Part III
  (c) Part IV
  (d) Part V
56. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The President of India is the constitutional head of the Union.
  • Reason (R): The real executive powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Codes:
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (c) A is true, but R is false.
  (d) A is false, but R is true.
57. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
  (a) Article 15
  (b) Article 16
  (c) Article 17
  (d) Article 18
58. Which of the following statements about India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting in August 2025 is correct?
  (a) The MPC increased the key repo rate to 6.25%.
  (b) The committee maintained the repo rate at 5.50%.
  (c) The MPC shifted to a hawkish stance due to rising inflation.
  (d) Retail inflation in July was the highest in eight years.
59. Which of the following is NOT an indicator used in the HDI calculation?
  (a) Life expectancy at birth
  (b) Gross National Income (GNI) per capita
  (c) Mean years of schooling
  (d) Inflation rate
60. Match List-I (Scheme) with List-II (Launch Year)
  List-I (UP Government Yojana) List-II (Launch Year)
  A. One District One Product (ODOP) Yojana 1. 2018
  B. Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana 2. 2019
  C. UP Ghar Ghar Ration Yojana 3. 2021
  D. Bal Shramik Vidya Yojana 4. 2020
  Code-
  (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  (c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
  (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
61. What major collaborative satellite mission did ISRO launch in 2025 to monitor Earth’s changing surfaces?
  (a) Oceansat-3
  (b) NISAR
  (c) TDS-01 experimental satellite
  (d) BlueBird 6 commercial payload
62. Which milestone launch marked ISRO’s 100th mission from Sriharikota in 2025?
  (a) NISAR satellite (GSLV-F16)
  (b) NVS-02 navigation satellite (GSLV-F15)
  (c) SpaDeX docking experiment
  (d) Oceansat-3 Earth observation satellite
63. COP30, a major environmental conference, was scheduled to be held in 2025 in which country?
  (a) Brazil
  (b) India
  (c) China
  (d) UAE
64. Which 2025 international conference in Guilin, China, addressed environmental economics topics such as natural resource management and green energy?
  (a) ICEMDG-2025
  (b) EEC 2025 (Environmental Economics Conference)
  (c) ICAEE 2025 in Dubai
  (d) EconWorld2025
65. Which 2025 conference focused on sustainable development and was held in New Delhi?
  (a) COP30
  (b) World Sustainable Development Summit
  (c) EconWorld2025
  (d) ICEMDG-2025
66. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states of India?
  (a) Kerala
  (b) Rajasthan
  (c) Punjab
  (d) Haryana
67. The chemical formula of common salt is:
  (a) NaCl
  (b) KCl
  (c) Na₂SO₄
  (d) NaHCO₃
68. The process of converting water into vapor is called:
  (a) Condensation
  (b) Evaporation
  (c) Sublimation
  (d) Precipitation
69. Which of the following crops is most suitable for the Mediterranean climate?
  (a) Grapes
  (b) Rice
  (c) Tea
  (d) Sugarcane
70. The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by:
  (a) Heavy rainfall in summer and dry winters
  (b) Heavy rainfall throughout the year
  (c) Hot dry summers and mild wet winters
  (d) Cold dry summers and cold wet winters
71. Which one of the following pairs(Desert - Country/Region) is NOT correctly matched?
  (a) Gobi --- China–Mongolia
  (b) Kalahari --- Botswana–Namibia
  (c) Atacama --- Chile
  (d) Mojave --- Canada
72. Which one of the following pairs(Mountain Range - Continent) is NOT correctly matched?
  (a) Andes --- South America
  (b) Alps --- Europe
  (c) Atlas --- Asia
  (d) Rockies --- North America
73. Arrange the following rivers from east to west:
  1. Yangtze
  2. Nile
  3. Amazon
  4. Mississippi

Options:
  (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
  (c) 1, 4, 3, 2
  (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
74. Arrange the following mountain passes from east to west:
  1. Khyber Pass
  2. Donner Pass
  3. Karakoram Pass
  4. Tizi n’Tichka Pass

Options:
  (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
  (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
  (c) 3, 2, 1, 4
  (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
75. Arrange the following mountain ranges from east to west:
  1. Patkai Hills
  2. Naga Hills
  3. Khasi Hills
  4. Mikir Hills

Options:
  (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
  (c) 4, 3, 2, 1
  (d) 1, 3, 2, 4
76. The full form of SARS is:
  (a) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
  (b) Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome
  (c) Severe Acquired Respiratory Syndrome
  (d) Sudden Acquired Respiratory Syndrome
77. RT-PCR test used for COVID-19 diagnosis stands for:
  (a) Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction
  (b) Rapid Testing Polymerase Chain Reaction
  (c) Reverse Testing Polymerase Chain Reaction
  (d) Rapid Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction
78. The full form of MERS is:
  (a) Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
  (b) Mediterranean East Respiratory Syndrome
  (c) Middle East Respiratory Sickness
  (d) Mediterranean East Respiratory Sickness
79. The full form of LPG is:
  (a) Liquid Petroleum Gas
  (b) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
  (c) Liquid Propane Gas
  (d) Liquefied Propane Gas
80. The full form of DNA is:
  (a) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
  (b) Deoxyribose Nitric Acid
  (c) Dioxyribonucleic Acid
  (d) Dioxyribose Nucleic Acid
81. The chemical formula of gypsum is:
  (a) CaCO₃
  (b) CaSO₄·2H₂O
  (c) CaCl₂
  (d) CaSO₄
82. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is:
  (a) Ca(OH)₂
  (b) CaOCl₂
  (c) CaCl₂
  (d) CaCO₃
83. Butter is an example of:
  (a) Gel
  (b) Emulsion
  (c) Foam
  (d) Aerosol
84. The disease cholera is caused by:
  (a) Bacteria
  (b) Virus
  (c) Protozoa
  (d) Fungi
85. Which microorganism causes malaria?
  (a) Plasmodium
  (b) Leishmania
  (c) Trypanosoma
  (d) Ascaris
86. The process by which green plants prepare their own food using sunlight is called:
  (a) Respiration
  (b) Photosynthesis
  (c) Transpiration
  (d) Fermentation
87. The shoulder joint in humans is:
  (a) Ball and socket joint
  (b) Hinge joint
  (c) Pivot joint
  (d) Gliding joint
88. The joint between the skull bones is an example of:
  (a) Hinge joint
  (b) Ball and socket joint
  (c) Fibrous joint
  (d) Pivot joint
89. Match the country with its continent:
  List I (Country) List II (Continent)
  A. Brazil 1. Asia
  B. Egypt 2. Africa
  C. India 3. South America
  D. France 4. Europe
  Code-
  (a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  (d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
90. Match the country with its famous landmark:
  List I (Country) List II (Landmark)
  A. France 1. Great Wall
  B. Egypt 2. Eiffel Tower
  C. China 3. Colosseum
  D. Italy 4. Pyramids of Giza
  Code-
  (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
  (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
91. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
  (a) Pulmonary vein
  (b) Pulmonary artery
  (c) Aorta
  (d) Vena cava
92. The largest artery in the human body is:
  (a) Pulmonary artery
  (b) Aorta
  (c) Coronary artery
  (d) Carotid artery
93. Heart attack occurs mainly due to the blockage of:
  (a) Coronary artery
  (b) Pulmonary vein
  (c) Aorta
  (d) Vena cava
94. Which type of immunity is provided by vaccines?
  (a) Passive immunity
  (b) Active immunity
  (c) Natural immunity
  (d) Innate immunity
95. mRNA vaccines (like COVID-19 vaccines) work by:
  (a) Killing the virus directly
  (b) Training the immune system using viral genetic material
  (c) Blocking bacteria from entering cells
  (d) Neutralizing toxins in the blood
96. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
  • Reason (R): The Chauri Chaura incident involved violence by protesters against the police.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
97. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The western coastal plains of India are narrower than the eastern coastal plains.
  • Reason (R): The Western Ghats are situated close to the Arabian Sea.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
98. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
  • Reason (R): The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
99. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Digital India initiative aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
  • Reason (R): It provides only free mobile phones to all citizens.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
100. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Ozone layer protects life on Earth by absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiation.
  • Reason (R): Ultraviolet radiation causes skin cancer and genetic mutations.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
101. Which crop is grown in India as a zaid crop?
  (a) Rice (b) Maize
  (c) Watermelon (d) Wheat
102. Which state is the largest producer of wheat in India?
  (a) Uttar Pradesh
  (b) Punjab
  (c) Haryana
  (d) Madhya Pradesh
103. The Deodar (Cedrus deodara) tree is mainly found in which forest type?
  (a) Tropical Evergreen
  (b) Tropical Deciduous
  (c) Montane Forests
  (d) Thorny Forests
104. Sundarbans mangrove forests are mainly found in the delta of:
  (a) Godavari–Krishna
  (b) Mahanadi
  (c) Ganga–Brahmaputra
  (d) Narmada–Tapti
105. Which soil type is most suitable for tea cultivation in India?
  (a) Alluvial Soil
  (b) Black Soil
  (c) Laterite Soil
  (d) Red Soil
106. Regur soil is another name for:
  (a) Alluvial Soil
  (b) Black Cotton Soil
  (c) Red Soil
  (d) Laterite Soil
107. The Western Disturbances which bring winter rainfall to North India originate from:
  (a) Mediterranean Sea
  (b) Arabian Sea
  (c) Bay of Bengal
  (d) Indian Ocean
108. Which one of the following places receives the highest average annual rainfall in India?
  (a) Mawsynram
  (b) Cherrapunji
  (c) Agartala
  (d) Shillong
109. The Narmada River flows through which type of valley?
  (a) Rift Valley
  (b) V-shaped Valley
  (c) U-shaped Valley
  (d) Gorge Valley
110. The river Brahmaputra is known as Tsangpo in:
  (a) Bhutan
  (b) Tibet
  (c) Myanmar
  (d) China
111. The Kalahari Desert, rich in diamond deposits, is located in:
  (a) Asia
  (b) Africa
  (c) Australia
  (d) South America
112. Which is the smallest continent in terms of land area?
  (a) Europe
  (b) Australia
  (c) Antarctica
  (d) South America
113. Which among the following is the world’s busiest international sea trade route?
  (a) Cape of Good Hope Route
  (b) Panama Canal Route
  (c) North Atlantic Route
  (d) Suez Canal Route
114. The country known as the “Middle East Oil Basket” is:
  (a) Iran (b) Iraq
  (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Kuwait
115. The Suez Canal connects:
  (a) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
  (b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
  (c) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea
  (d) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
116. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of pulses in the world.
  • Reason (R): Pulses are grown mainly in areas with low and erratic rainfall.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
117. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of sugarcane in India?
  (a) Maharashtra
  (b) Uttar Pradesh
  (c) Karnataka
  (d) Tamil Nadu
118. Which crop is known as “Golden Fiber” of India?
  (a) Cotton (b) Jute
  (c) Hemp (d) Coir
119. Match Hills and Location (India)
  Hills Location (India)
  A. Aravalli Hills 1. Tamil Nadu–Kerala–Karnataka junction
  B. Nilgiri Hills 2. Rajasthan
  C. Rajmahal Hills 3. Jharkhand
  D. Garo Hills 4. Meghalaya
  Code-
  (a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
  (b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
  (c) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
  (d) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
120. Match List I (Scheme) – List II (Ministry)
  List I (Scheme) List II (Ministry)
  A. PM-KISAN 1. Ministry of Agriculture
  B. Ayushman Bharat 2. Ministry of Health
  C. PM Awas Yojana 3. Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
  D. Startup India 4. Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  Code-
  (a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
  (b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
  (c) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
  (d) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1, D – 4
121. Match List–I (States) with List–II (Famous products):
  List–I (States) List–II (Famous products)
  1. Uttar Pradesh a. Pochampally Ikat
  2. Assam b. Banarasi Saree
  3. Telangana c. Muga Silk
  4. West Bengal d. Darjeeling Tea
  Code-
  (a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
  (b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
  (c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
  (d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
122. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Global warming leads to melting of glaciers and rise in sea levels.
  • Reason (R): Increase in greenhouse gases traps more heat in the atmosphere.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, R is false
  (d) A is false, R is true
123. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation from the human body.
  • Reason (R): When air contains more moisture, the evaporation of sweat slows down, making us feel hotter.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, R is false
  (d) A is false, R is true
124. Biotic components of an ecosystem include:
  (a) Producers, Consumers, Decomposers
  (b) Soil, Water, Air
  (c) Sunlight, Temperature, Rainfall
  (d) Rocks, Minerals, Climate
125. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission established?
  (a) Article 320
  (b) Article 322
  (c) Article 324
  (d) Article 326
126. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the highest global warming potential (GWP)?
  (a) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
  (b) Methane (CH₄)
  (c) Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
  (d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
127. Which of the following is the largest biosphere reserve in India?
  (a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  (b) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
  (c) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
  (d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
128. After resignation, who officiates as Vice-President until a new Vice-President is elected?
  (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
  (b) Prime Minister
  (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  (d) Chief Justice of India
129. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the resignation of the Vice-President?
  (a) Resignation is addressed to the President
  (b) Resignation is voluntary
  (c) Parliament must approve the resignation
  (d) The office becomes vacant immediately after resignation is accepted
130. Under which Article of the Constitution is the resignation of the Vice-President mentioned?
  (a) Article 65
  (b) Article 66
  (c) Article 67
  (d) Article 68
131. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) was called off by Gandhi.
  • Reason (R): Gandhi withdrew the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident due to violence.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
132. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The Simon Commission (1927) was boycotted by Indians.
  • Reason (R): The Commission did not include any Indian member.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
133. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): The Indus Valley people were familiar with the use of cotton.
  • Reason (R): Cotton cloth fragments have been discovered from sites like Mohenjodaro.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
134. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Ashoka sent missionaries to Sri Lanka, Central Asia, and Southeast Asia.
  • Reason (R): He wanted to spread Buddhism beyond India as part of his Dhamma policy.
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
135. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
  • Assertion (A): Akbar abolished the Jizya tax on non-Muslims.
  • Reason (R): He wanted to promote religious tolerance and implement his policy of Sulh-i-Kul (universal peace).
  (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  (c) A is true, but R is false
  (d) A is false, but R is true
136. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
  1. Partition of Bengal
  2. Home Rule Movement
  3. Non-Cooperation Movement
  4. Civil Disobedience Movement
  (a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
  (b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
  (c) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
  (d) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
137. Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
  1. It proposed the grouping of provinces into three sections.
  2. It recommended partition of India into India and Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  (a) 1 only
  (b) 2 only
  (c) Both 1 and 2
  (d) Neither 1 nor 2
138. Consider the following statements regarding the Morley–Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act, 1909):
  1. The reforms introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
  2. They granted provincial legislatures the power to frame budgets independently of the Governor-General.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  (a) 1 only
  (b) 2 only
  (c) Both 1 and 2
  (d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Which of the following plant species is considered a gymnosperm?
  (a) Mango (Mangifera indica)
  (b) Neem (Azadirachta indica)
  (c) Cycas (Cycas revoluta)
  (d) Mustard (Brassica juncea)
140. Which of the following is considered a central principle in the philosophy of science?
  (a) Authority is the ultimate source of truth
  (b) Scientific knowledge must be based on empirical evidence and testability
  (c) Science is independent of logic and reasoning
  (d) Scientific theories can never be questioned once accepted
141. Match List–I (Biosphere Reserve) with List–II (State):
  List – I (Biosphere Reserve) List – II (State)
  1. Nanda Devi A. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Nokrek B. Uttarakhand
  3. Pachmarhi C. Meghalaya
  4. Great Nicobar D. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  Code-
  (a) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
  (b) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – C
  (c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
  (d) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D
142. Which of the following statements is NOT true about “Carbon Credits”?
  (a) Carbon credits are tradable permits that allow a country or organization to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or equivalent gases.
  (b) One carbon credit usually represents the reduction of one metric tonne of carbon dioxide emissions.
  (c) Carbon credits can only be used within the country where they are issued and cannot be traded internationally.
  (d) They are part of global efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and mitigate climate change.
143. Match List-1(Author) and List-2(Book):
  List-1 List-2
  1. Banu Mushtaq A. The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny
  2. Kiran Desai B. Atulniya Atalji (Vyaktitva, Vichar aur Virasat)
  3. Brajesh Pathak (Dy CM, UP) C. Heart Lamp
  4. Amitav Ghosh D. Manuscript to be sealed until 2114
  Code-
  (a) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
  (b) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
  (c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
  (d) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – A
144. The Uttar Pradesh government launched the scheme “One District, One Product (ODOP)” mainly for—
  (a) Promoting industrialization in rural areas
  (b) Promoting traditional industries and handicrafts unique to each district
  (c) Providing employment to government school teachers
  (d) Encouraging organic farming
145. Match List–I (Organization) with List–II (Functions):
  List – I List – II
  1. IMF A. Provides short-term credit to members in balance of payment crisis
  2. World Bank (IBRD) B. Provides long-term loans for development projects
  3. WHO C. Works for international public health
  4. ILO D. Sets international labour standards and promotes social justice
  Code-
  (a) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
  (b) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
  (c) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D
  (d) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
146. Arrange the following states in ascending order of population (Census 2011): Goa, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh
  (a) Mizoram – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Goa
  (b) Arunachal Pradesh – Mizoram – Goa – Nagaland
  (c) Mizoram – Arunachal Pradesh – Goa – Nagaland
  (d) Mizoram – Goa – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland
147. The system of land revenue measurement introduced by Akbar with the help of Raja Todar Mal was known as—
  (a) Zabti System
  (b) Dahsala System
  (c) Nasaq System
  (d) Iqta System
148. Which Sen ruler introduced the Kulinism system in Bengal society?
  (a) Vijaya Sen
  (b) Hemanta Sen
  (c) Ballal Sen
  (d) Lakshman Sen
149. Which among the following was a famous river port during the Mauryan period?
  (a) Sopara
  (b) Tamralipti
  (c) Puhar
  (d) Broach
150. Who was the first Peshwa of the Maratha Empire?
  (a) Baji Rao I
  (b) Balaji Vishwanath
  (c) Madhav Rao I
  (d) Narayan Rao